[CW: Slurs/pejoratives, morality] When is it considered immoral if someone is saying something that they know is pejorative and they are not intending it as disparaging towards the original group?
JoBo @ JoBo @feddit.uk Posts 22Comments 1,095Joined 2 yr. ago
JoBo @ JoBo @feddit.uk
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These two examples are quite different, I think.
Gay was not originally a slur, AFAIK. It was adopted as a less clinical descriptor by gay people, especially gay men (again, AFAIK). There have been concerted efforts to make it into a slur and it is often used in a derogatory fashion, but it does not have a pre-history of being used as a slur.
Queer is the opposite. It was used as a slur and it is a rare example of successful reclamation of a word. A slogan in the 1980s on Gay Pride protests was "We're here, we're queer, we're fabulous, get used to it". At the time, queer was very much a slur so the chant had a bite that you wouldn't hear in it today.